QUESTION: Isn't the Holy Spirit incorrectly
called "it" in Romans 8:26 in the King James Bible'?
ANSWER: No. There is nothing wrong with
the translation of "pneuma" in Roman 8:26.
EXPLANATION: The refutation of this
popular though feeble charge against the integrity of the Bible comes
from three sources. First, the Greek language itself, secondly, the
hypocrisy of Bible critics and thirdly, from Jesus Christ Himself. (Since
the Bible is our final authority in all matters of faith
and practice, His testimony should
hold considerable influence.)
First, the word translated "itself" in Romans
8:26 is "pneuma" which means "spirit." (Since the
"spirit" is like air (Genesis 1:7, John 3:8) we use the word
"pneumatic" to describe things that are air operated.) In
Greek every word has its own distinct gender, masculine, feminine or
neuter. Masculine gender is denoted by the article "o," feminine
by "a," and neuter by "to." The word for spirit,
"pneuma" is neuter, a fact which is known
to even first year Greek language students. Thus, the King James Bible
correctly translates pneuma "itself" because
it would be grammatically incorrect to translate it "himself"
as many of today's inferior translations do. Since critics of the King
James Bible like to deride it for pretended "mistranslations"
of the Greek, it seems hypocritical indeed to criticize it here for
properly translating the Greek. Then to add insult to ignorance they
laud other versions such as the New American Standard Version, New International
Version, and New King James Version which INCORRECTLY render pneuma
Secondly, in adding to their hypocrisy and exposing their
disdain for God's Bible, these same critics, who become indignant at
the Holy Spirit being called "it" in Romans 8 in a King James
Bible, will promote translations such its the New American Standard
Version and the New International Version which call God a "What
" in Acts 17:23. The Authorized Version correctly renders it "Whom."
Thirdly, and most convincingly, is a statement that Jesus
Christ makes in John chapter 4 while dealing with the woman at the well.
Jesus, completely unintimidated by twentieth century scholarship,
doesn't hesitate to say to the woman in verse 22, "Ye worship ye
know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation
is of the Jews."
To whom is Jesus referring to by the word "what?"
The next verse defines His statement perfectly.
"But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshipers
shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for
the Father seeketh such to worship him."
Thus we see that Jesus finds referring to His own Father
as "what" in verse 22 a non-issue. While
the mighty mice of twentieth century scholarship would translate an
entirely new version over it. Even though they, in their own casual
conversation, find no offense in referring to the Holy Spirit in the
Which will you follow'?